In the proof of Theorem 5.7, they make a set F* of the constant polynomials and verify that it is a subring of F[x]/(p(x)). What I don't understand is why don't they just state it that way in the theorem? Why don't they just say that the set of constant polynomials make a set F* which is a subring of F[x]/(p(x))?
Reflective:
Again, many of the proofs are just altered versions of the proofs for rings Zn, so the concept presented are easily recognizable.
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